MS Mrs Julia Birley/2
My dear Mr Dean
Please tell me if I am wrong in objecting to have the 1st Psalm set down wholly as Maccabean? It is in Mr Rodwell’s comments on the Psalms in his new Newbery Magazine1 which I have had to notice. There was no previous explanation why any Psalms should be said to be Maccabean (though of course I know it is said of more obvious ones, though I don’t believe it) And the reason was odd, that the 1st Psalm seemed to belong to a time when everybody was to study the law, not only rulers as in Deut XVI and Joshua I- Just as if the 6th of Deuteronomy did not enforce it upon everybody! I know the 1st Psalm is said not to be David’s but I never saw it attributed to anyone later than Ezra. I don’t want to be too narrow and ignorant of criticism but I don’t find this in Wordsworth or Thrupp and I have not Browne.
Surely I need not believe in direct inspiration between Malachi and St Matthew.
I should like to be discussing it in the porch at the Mead2
yours affectionately
C M Yonge